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Old 04-01-2018, 06:28 AM
Kyalin V. Raintree Kyalin V. Raintree is offline

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Originally Posted by Marthen View Post
Not to burst down your bubble there kiddo, but correlation does not imply causation, so unless you have a direct proof that the switch from a more grounded and amoral setting of Warcraft I/II to a more idealistic and heroic setting of Warcraft III was behind the increase of sales, this is nothing but a wild conjecture. Or are you trying to tell me that Diablo III's thrice as large sales compared to Diablo II happened due to the change of the atmosphere and thematics, even though this change has been until this day one of the largest points of criticism?
"Can help to demonstrate" =/= "proves".

That said, it doesn't make sense to completely ignore a correlation either, especially when you lack the sort of expensive, resource intensive study that would be required to parse out the full suite of factors and their effects.

Edit: I also brought up the other variance in sales (the post wrath decline) for a reason. We are not talking about the increase observed between WC I/II and III in isolation, as your post seems to do.

Last edited by Kyalin V. Raintree; 04-01-2018 at 06:32 AM..
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